Concept:For an implication A→B, the inverse is ∼A→∼B.Explanation:Let A=p and B=(q→r).So the inverse of p→(q→r) is:∼p→∼(q→r)Now, the contrapositive of ∼p→∼(q→r) is (q→r)→p.Therefore, the inverse is logically equivalent to (q→r)→p.Answer:Option D: (q→r)→p