Use 1+sinx=(sin(x/2)+cos(x/2))2. Then 2/(1+sinx)=2/(sin(x/2)+cos(x/2))=sec(x/2−π/4). Hence the integral is 2log∣sec(x/2−π/4)+tan(x/2−π/4)∣+C. Since sec is even, this equals 2log∣sec(π/4−x/2)−tan(π/4−x/2)∣+C. Comparing with 2log∣A(x)−B(x)∣+C, we get B(x)=tan(π/4−x/2). Therefore B(π/4)=tan(π/8)=2−1=1/3+22, which is option seq 1.