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CBSE Class 12 Math 2020 Outside Delhi Set 1 Solved Paper

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Question : 28 of 36
Marks: +1, -0
If y=sin⁡−1(1+x+1−x2)y = \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{1+x}+\sqrt{1-x}}{2} \right), then show that   dydx=−121−x2\;\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-1}{2\sqrt{1-x^2}}
OR
Verify the Rolle's Theorem for the function f(x)=excos⁡xf(x)=e^x \cos x in [−π2,π2]\left[ -\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2} \right]
Put x=cos⁡2θx = \cos 2\theta
⇒y=sin⁡−1\Rightarrow y = \sin^{-1}
(1+cos⁡2θ2+1−cos⁡2θ2)\left( \frac{\sqrt{1+\cos 2\theta}}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{1-\cos 2\theta}}{2} \right)
⇒y=sin⁡−1\Rightarrow y = \sin^{-1}
(2cos⁡22θ2+2⋅sin⁡2θ2)\left( \frac{\sqrt{2 \cos^2 2\theta}}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{2 \cdot \sin^2 \theta}}{2} \right)
⇒y=sin⁡−1(cos⁡2θ2+sin⁡2θ2)\Rightarrow y = \sin^{-1} \left( \frac{\cos 2\theta}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{\sin 2\theta}{\sqrt{2}} \right)
⇒y=sin⁡−1(sin⁡(π4+2θ).\Rightarrow y = \sin^{-1} ( \sin \left( \frac{\pi}{4} + 2\theta \right) .
⇒y=π4+2θ  .   \Rightarrow y = \frac{\pi}{4} + 2\theta \; \text{. } \;
⇒dydθ=2\Rightarrow \frac{dy}{d\theta} = 2
  Put  θ=cos⁡−1x2\;\text{Put}\; \theta = \frac{\cos^{-1} x}{2}
⇒dθdx=−141−x2\Rightarrow \frac{d\theta}{dx} = \frac{-1}{4 \sqrt{1-x^2}}
∴dydx=−121−x2\therefore \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-1}{2 \sqrt{1-x^2}}
OR
As we know that exponential and cosine functions are continuous and differentiable on RR .
Let us find the values of the function at an extreme
⇒f(−π2)=e−π2cos⁡(−π2)\Rightarrow f\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)
⇒f(−π2)=e−π2×0\Rightarrow f\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}} \times 0
⇒f(−π2)=0\Rightarrow f\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 0
⇒f(π2)=eπ2cos⁡(π2)\Rightarrow f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = e^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)
⇒f(π)=eπ2×0\Rightarrow f(\pi) = e^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \times 0
⇒f(π)=0\Rightarrow f(\pi) = 0
Here, f′(−π2)=f(π2)f'\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) , therefore there exist a c∈(−π2,π2)c \in \left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) such that f′(c)=0f'(c)=0 .
Let us find the derivative of f(x)f(x)
⇒f′(x)=d(excos⁡x)dx\Rightarrow f'(x) = \frac{d \left( e^{x} \cos x \right)}{dx}
⇒f′(x)=cos⁡xd(ex)dx+exd(cos⁡x)dx\Rightarrow f'(x) = \cos x \frac{d (e^x)}{dx} + e^x \frac{d(\cos x)}{dx}
⇒f′(x)=ex(−sin⁡x+cos⁡x)\Rightarrow f'(x) = e^x ( -\sin x + \cos x )
  Here,  f′(c)=0\;\text{Here,}\; f'(c)=0
⇒ec(−sin⁡c+cos⁡c)=0\Rightarrow e^c ( -\sin c + \cos c ) = 0
⇒−sin⁡c+cos⁡c=0\Rightarrow -\sin c + \cos c = 0
⇒−12sin⁡c+12cos⁡c=0\Rightarrow \frac{-1}{\sqrt{2}} \sin c + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cos c = 0
⇒−sin⁡(π4)sin⁡c+cos⁡(π4)cos⁡c=0\Rightarrow -\sin \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \sin c + \cos \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \cos c = 0
⇒cos⁡(c+π4)=0\Rightarrow \cos \left( c + \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = 0
⇒c+π4=π2\Rightarrow c + \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{2}
⇒c=π4E(−π2,π2)\Rightarrow c = \frac{\pi}{4} E \left( -\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2} \right)
Thus, Rolle's theorem is verified.
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